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Posted to users@httpd.apache.org by ex...@hope.cz on 2010/05/20 16:24:15 UTC

[users@httpd] Re: Is this possible ?

 Let’s suppose this configuration 
  
  |Server1| <----- |Server2| <----- |Client| 
  
  A client sends a request that starts a script on Server2.The script ( running on server2) 
  will download a webpage from Server1. 
  Is it possible to record Client’s IP on Server1, instead of Server2’s IP? In other words, 
  Server1 will think the request for downloading is directly from Client. 
  That is Server2’s IP will be “invisible” for Server1 
  
  Is this possbile? 
 
  Thanks 
  J.
  
 
 



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Re: [users@httpd] Re: Is this possible ?

Posted by Tom Evans <te...@googlemail.com>.

On Thu, May 20, 2010 at 3:24 PM,  <ex...@hope.cz> wrote:
>  Let’s suppose this configuration
>
>  |Server1| <----- |Server2| <----- |Client|
>
>  A client sends a request that starts a script on Server2.The script ( running on server2)
>  will download a webpage from Server1.
>  Is it possible to record Client’s IP on Server1, instead of Server2’s IP? In other words,
>  Server1 will think the request for downloading is directly from Client.
>  That is Server2’s IP will be “invisible” for Server1
>
>  Is this possbile?
>
>  Thanks
>  J.
>

Sure, with a bit of extra work. You need to update the request on
server1 to overwrite the IP address with the client's IP address. The
simplest way to do this is with something like mod_rpaf2 (3rd party
module), or mod_remoteip (currently in trunk).
You will also need to pass the client IP address in the request
headers sent from server2 to server1 - how you do this will depend on
how server2 will 'download' the webpage from server1. Both mod_rpaf
and mod_remoteip allow you to configure the header that it reads the
client IP from.

Cheers

Tom

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